PTCB Practice Test 3

Here is our third free PTCB practice test. These tests are designed with challenging questions similar to those found on the PTCE. Working through PTCB practice questions is the best way to review for your exam. Detailed explanations are provided after you answer each question.


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Question 1
Which of these is an antihistamine?

A
lisinopril
B
losartan
C
fexofenadine
D
fluconazole
Question 1 Explanation: 
Fexofenadine is an antihistamine with the brand name Allegra. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist. Fluconazole is an antifungal.
Question 2
Which statement is true of PPO plans?

A
PPO membership provides a substantial discount below the regular rates of the medical professionals who are in the network.
B
PPO plans often require members to select a primary care physician (PCP) who acts as a 'gatekeeper' to direct access to medical services.
C
PPO plans usually have lower premiums than HMO plans.
D
PPO members are not reimbursed for using medical care providers outside of their network of designated doctors and hospitals.
Question 2 Explanation: 
PPO plans provide substantial discounts for doctors and hospitals in the network. When using out-of-network providers, PPO members are reimbursed at a reduced rate. With a PPO, members can see the doctor or specialist they like without having to see a PCP first. PPO premiums tend to be higher than HMO plans, and there is usually a deductible.
Question 3
Which Act of Congress addresses the privacy and security of health data?

A
Ominibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990.
B
Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970.
C
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
D
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
Question 3 Explanation: 
The HIPAA Privacy Rule provides federal protections for personal health information and gives patients an array of rights with respect to that information.
Question 4
Which of the following correctly matches brand/generic names?

A
Cymbalta/duloxetine
B
Ativan/levaquin
C
Paxil/pregabalin
D
Zyrtec/diphenhydramine
Question 4 Explanation: 
The generic name for Cymbalta is duloxetine. The generic name for Paxil is paroxetine. The generic name for Zyrtec is cetirizine. The generic name for Ativan is lorazepam.
Question 5
The FDA publishes a book called Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, which is more commonly known as the:

A
Red Book
B
Orange Book
C
Remington
D
Martindale
Question 5 Explanation: 
The Orange Book identifies drug products approved on the basis of safety and effectiveness by the FDA. It also contains therapeutic equivalence evaluations for generic drugs, using Therapeutic Equivalence codes such as AA, AB, BC, and BD. If the first letter of the code is an ‘A’, the FDA has concluded that the generic formulation is therapeutically equivalent to the reference drug. If the first letter is a ‘B’, the FDA has concluded that the compared drugs are not equivalent. The second letter of the code gives more detailed information about formulations. The Orange Book also lists the patents which are purported to protect each drug.
Question 6
Which part of the NDC number indicates the manufacturer of a drug?

A
The last 1-2 digits.
B
The second segment.
C
The product code.
D
The first 4-5 digits.
Question 6 Explanation: 
The labeler code is the first segment. It is 4-5 digits and identifies the manufacturer. The product code is the second segment and is 3-4 digits long. It identifies the formulation, strength, and dosage. The package code is the third segment. It is 1-2 digits and identifies the package forms and sizes.
Question 7
The iPLEDGE program is designed to mitigate the risks associated with taking:

A
Lexapro
B
isotretinoin
C
OxyContin
D
zolpidem
Question 7 Explanation: 
Isotretinoin is a medication primarily used to treat cystic acne. Common brands include Absorica, Accutane, Amnesteem, Claravis, Epuris, Isotroin, and Roaccutane. iPLEDGE is a mandatory distribution program that is intended to prevent the use of isotretinoin during pregnancy, due to the high risk of birth defects.
Question 8
Which of the following is NOT a medication for Parkinson’s?

A
ropinirole
B
benztropine
C
amlodipine
D
amantadine
Question 8 Explanation: 
Norvasc (amlodipine) is a calcium channel blocker that is used to lower blood pressure and prevent chest pain.
Question 9
A prescription calls for 25mg of a medication t.i.d. for 7 days. The stock solution is composed of a 100mg/3mL. How many Liters of the stock solution is needed for the order?

A
12.50
B
15.75
C
0.1575
D
0.01575
Question 9 Explanation: 
The abbreviation t.i.d. means 3 times a day. So 7 days x 3 times per day x 25 mg each = 525 mg total needed.
100/3 = 525/x
Cross multiply to solve for x:
100x = 1575
x = 15.75 mL.
The answer asks for liters so divide by 1000:
15.75/1000 = 0.01575 L
Question 10
How many digits is a BIN number?

A
11
B
5
C
6
D
4
Question 10 Explanation: 
The NCPDP Processor ID Number (BIN) is a six-digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with a magnetic stripe. Plans that use cards with a magnetic stripe should use the recommended American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Issue Identifier Number (IIN) for processing electronic pharmacy claims. ANSI issues IIN numbers. NCPDP issues the Processor ID Number (BIN).
Question 11
Which is the proper use of tall man letters to help differentiate these look-alike/sound-alike medications?

A
parOXETINE — fluOXETINE
B
paroxeTINE — fluoxeTINE
C
PARoxetine — FLUoxetine
D
PAROXetine — FLUOXetine
Question 11 Explanation: 
With tall man letters you capitalize the part of the drug name that is DIFFERENT.
Question 12
The process by which a health insurance company determines if it should be the primary or secondary payer of medical claims for a patient who has coverage from more than one health insurance policy:

A
Pharmacy Claim Transmittal
B
Coordination of Benefits
C
Prior Authorization
D
Workers’ Compensation
Question 12 Explanation: 
Coordination of benefits is important when a patient is covered by more than one insurance plan. Medicare is often one of the plans involved with COB.
Question 13
Which of the following covers inpatient hospitals stays?

A
Medicare Part C
B
Medicare Part D
C
Medicare Part B
D
Medicare Part A
Question 13 Explanation: 
Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital stays, including a semiprivate room, food, and tests. The maximum length of stay that will be covered is usually 90 days.
Question 14
What is DEA form 106 used for?

A
Theft or loss of controlled substances.
B
Disposal of controlled substances.
C
Reporting inventory levels of controlled substances.
D
Ordering Schedule II medications.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Written notification must be provided to the DEA Field Division Office of the theft or significant loss of any controlled substance within one business day of discovery of the loss. DEA form 106 must be completed and submitted to the Field Division Office.
Question 15
Which federal law introduced a ‘proof-of-efficacy’ requirement?

A
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B
Pure Food and Drug Act
C
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970
D
Kefauver Harris Amendment
Question 15 Explanation: 
The Kefauver Harris Amendment is also known as the ‘Drug Efficacy Amendment.’ It is a 1962 amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. It introduced requirements for drug manufacturers to provide proof of the effectiveness and safety of their drugs before they could be approved. It also required drug advertising to disclose accurate information about side effects and efficacy of treatments.
Question 16
Individuals with a severe allergy to penicillin SHOULD NOT receive

A
ciprofloxacin
B
doxycycline
C
azithromycin
D
amoxicillin
Question 16 Explanation: 
Amoxicillin is contraindicated and should be avoided, while the other options given here are considered safe. Other antibiotics to avoid include Augmentin, Flucloxacillin, Penicillin G, Penicillin V, Tazocin, Temocillin, and Timentin. Other drugs that are on the caution list and should also be avoided include all cephalosporins (Cefalexin, Cefixime, Cefotaxime, Ceftazidime, Ceftriaxone, Cefuroxime) and all carbapenems (Ertapenem, Imipenem + Cilastatin, Meropenem) and Aztreonam.
Question 17
How much dextrose is in a 900mL solution of D5W?

A
180 g
B
90 g
C
500 g
D
45 g
Question 17 Explanation: 
D5W means 5% dextrose in the solution. Calculate: 5% of 900 = 45 g
Question 18
Which of the following potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations?

A
Exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
B
Exposure to wet surfaces and potential slip and falls.
C
Exposure to hazardous chemicals.
D
All of these potential hazards are addressed by OSHA regulations.
Question 18 Explanation: 
OSHA regulations address the following potential hazards in a pharmacy: Exposure to bloodborne pathogens (HIV, Hepatitis B & C), exposure to hazardous chemicals or drugs, exposure of eyes or bodies to corrosive materials, exposure to latex allergy, exposure to wet surfaces that could cause slip and falls, and availability of personal protective equipment.
Question 19
Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) is a system designed to:

A
monitor medication adherence rates.
B
manage controlled substances.
C
fill prescriptions more accurately.
D
prevent medication errors in healthcare settings.
Question 19 Explanation: 
The BCMA system is used by nurses in healthcare settings who are administering medications. With this system the nurse can scan a barcode on the patient’s wristband to make sure it is the right patient. Then the nurse scans a barcode on the medicine to ensure it is: the right medicine, the right dose, the right time, and is administered by the right route.
Question 20
Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?

A
Maxide
B
spironolactone
C
furosemide
D
pioglitazone
Question 20 Explanation: 
Pioglitazone is a hypoglycemic agent.
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